sneaky98gt
10 Year Member
You are missing something sneaky. In a given gear you will accelerate hardest at peak torque, but if you could change gears at that same vehicle speed to any point that's making more hp, you will accelerate harder in that gear. When you multiply the torque made at the engine, by the new tranny gear ratio, you'll end up with more torque going to the rear-end.
Compare an insane 1050 ft-lbs torque tractor diesel at 1500 RPM - that's 300hp
Now consider an engine similar to an F1 engine that makes 350hp at 20,000 RPM - that's only ~92 ft-lbs of torque
At the same vehicle speed, which engine if optimally geared will make more torque at the rear end?
At a given speed, say they were rotating the driveshaft at 500 RPM (vehicle should be moving the same speed with identical rear gears, wheels, and tires). To get that driveshaft speed down to 500 RPM with the tractor motor, the gear ratio needed is only 3:1 --> 1500rpm/3 = 500rpm. At the same time, the torque to the rear will be multiplied by 3 making an astounding 3150 ft-lbs.
To get the F1 motor down to 500 rpm, the gear ratio needed is 40:1. 20,000/40 = 500 RPM. At the same time, the torque sent to the rear is multiplied by 40: 92*40= 3680 ft-lbs. The tiny F1 motor wins, exactly as predicted by the fact that the F1 motor is making more hp. With this knowledge we can just as surely predict that a new mustang 5.0 at 412hp @ 6200 (best guess) geared optimally will outperform the F1 motor. The certainty comes from the fact that the 5.0 makes more power. I need not actually do the torque multiplication to verify this result.
Yea, you're right. I'm wrong, and I'm not afraid to admit it.
I was missing the whole re-gearing idea. A car with more horsepower (i.e. torque at more rpm, and thus a faster speed) can have more gear at any given speed, thus giving it more torque multiplication and more acceleration, while still allowing a given speed.
That's why the steam engine posted above won't really accelerate anything. (I think I got this right). Assuming it makes 10,000 ft-lbs at 5 rpm (~10 horsepower), the gear ratio needed to get the drive shaft to 500 rpm is 1:100, or 10,000/100, which is only 100 ft-lbs of torque to the ground.
I think I got all that, but I still don't understand/agree with the max acceleration at peak torque. I mean, it makes sense from a science point of view, but it doesn't make sense to me in an experimental point of view.
For example, I just got back in from driving my granddad's 04 Mach 1. It is bone stock, making 320 ft-lbs of torque at 4250 rpm and 305 horsepower at 6000 rpm, according to Ford. I put it in 2nd gear, and go WOT from a very low rpm/speed. Just to begin with, it is pretty slow getting off the line, as the 4 valve motor isn't know for producing much low end power. At about 3000 rpm, it is getting going a little better. By 4000 rpm, it is really starting to hit its power band. At 5000, it is pulling HARD. 5000 to 6000 rpm goes by really quick, and at 6000-6500, it is pulling like a freight train (no joke). Bottom line, it pulls MUCH, MUCH harder at 6000 rpm (peak horsepower) than at 4250 (peak torque). This is not an opinion; it accelerates harder at 6000 rpm than at 4000 rpm.
If the max acceleration occurs at peak torque, why is this? I understand the science (I think), but my theoretical prediction doesn't meet my practical experience.